FPF Guard OMR Examination 2026 Full Analysis - Higher GK depth, Assertion–Reason format introduced,Current Affairs are more targeted

JKSSB — Complete Analysis & Answer Key

FPF Guard OMR Examination 2026

Set C  |  120 Questions  |  120 Marks  |  120 Minutes

Held on: 29 March 2026

🔔 Important: Shift in JKSSB Exam Pattern

Compared to earlier JKSSB papers (including the Wildlife Guard 2026), the FPF Guard paper shows a clear evolution in difficulty and question style:

• Higher GK depth: J&K-specific history, shrines, Sufi saints, passes, rivers, and rulers now carry significant weight — far more than before.
• Assertion–Reason format introduced in Geography and Culture sections (Q31, Q54) — a pattern more common in UPSC/JKPSC-level papers.
• Current Affairs are more targeted — Asia Cup Hockey 2025, FIDE Blitz Chess 2025, BioPharma SHAKTI mission, SIR exercise, Tejas aircraft — all recent events.
• English section is more nuanced — inchoative verbs, determiners, article use, and vocabulary (pusillanimous, flabbergasted, intransigent) have appeared — vocabulary is UPSC-level.
• Reasoning section is richer — blood relations, coding–decoding, number series, direction sense, and Venn diagrams are all well-represented.
• Maths now includes probability — a new addition compared to typical Guard-level papers.
• No Computer section — unlike many earlier JKSSB exams; replaced by expanded GK and Reasoning.

Verdict: This paper demands JKPSC-level preparation for GK and English. Guards-level aspirants must now go beyond textbook basics.

📊 Section-Wise Weightage

Section	Questions	Q. Numbers	Difficulty
English Language	23	1–7, 8–10, 11–15, 16–17, 18–24, 117–120	🟠 Moderate–Hard
General Knowledge & Current Affairs	36	25–60	🔴 Hard
General Science	5	42–46	🟢 Easy–Moderate
Mathematics	21	61–82, 83–90 (partial)	🟠 Moderate
Logical Reasoning & Mental Ability	35	91–116	🟠 Moderate

✅ Complete Answer Key — Set C

⚠️ This is an expert-analysed provisional key. Please cross-check with official JKSSB answer key when released.

📘 Section 1: English Language (Q. 1–24, 117–120)

Q No.	Answer	Question Summary	Explanation
1	B	Match word with synonym: Obscure–hidden, Verbose–wordy, Placid–calm, Frugal–thrifty	1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv. Option B = 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv ✔
2	C	Antonym of "Whimsical"	Whimsical = fanciful/impulsive. Antonym = Pragmatic (practical, realistic).
3	B	Pair of antonyms for "Loquacious"	Loquacious = very talkative. Antonym = Taciturn / Reticent. Option B ✔
4	D	Fill blank: "She has always been keen ___ pursuing research…"	"Keen on pursuing" — correct collocation with 'keen'.
5	D	Fill blanks: "concerned ___ decline… warned ___ consequences"	"Concerned about… warned of" — correct prepositions.
6	A	Fill blanks: "divided ___ team members… insisted ___ finishing ___ deadline"	"divided among… insisted on… before the deadline." Option A ✔
7	D	Which sentence contains an inchoative verb?	"The sky darkened before the storm arrived." — 'darken' is an inchoative verb (showing beginning of a state). Option D ✔
8	A	"As the evening progressed, the weather ___ colder."	Past tense narrative — "weather became colder." Option A ✔
9	B	Verb form in "the reaction finally proceeded smoothly"	"proceeded" — no object required. Intransitive verb. Option B ✔
10	C	Match sentences to verb forms (conducted/slept/became/completed)	1-conducted=Transitive(iv), 2-slept=Intransitive(ii), 3-became=Linking(i), 4-completed=Auxiliary(iii). Option C = 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii ✔
11	—	According to passage, what is continuous partial attention?	None of options A/B/C/D exactly matches. Passage says it's keeping attention spread across many sources simultaneously — closest is none perfectly match, but the passage contrasts it with multitasking (intentional task shifting). Not B. Not A. Most defensible: none is ideal; provisionally B is eliminated; answer likely not provided as correct by JKSSB. Mark as disputed.
12	B	Why do digital platforms send frequent notifications?	Passage: "Applications often send frequent notifications to attract users' attention" — to encourage users to keep checking. Option B ✔
13	C	When is continuous partial attention useful?	Passage: "tracking breaking news or coordinating a large team." Option C = Monitoring breaking news ✔
14	B	Activity requiring deeper concentration?	Passage: "reading detailed material or solving complex problems." Option B = Reading detailed material ✔
15	C	Main idea of the passage?	The real challenge is how individuals control their attention while using technology. Option C = "The way people manage their attention" ✔
16	C	Sentence with wrongly used determiner?	"Much people attended…" — 'Much' is for uncountable nouns. Should be 'Many people'. Option C ✔
17	D	Correctly matched determiners with type?	I-Those (Demonstrative ✔), II-several (Distributive ✗ — it's Indefinite), III-Our (Possessive ✔), IV-Each (Distributive ✔). Correct: I, III, IV = Option D ✔
18	B	Correctly spelled word?	Pusillanimous — meaning cowardly/lacking courage. Option B ✔
19	D	Correct spelling for "extremely surprised or shocked"	Flabbergasted. Option D ✔
20	C	Correct spelling for "unwilling to change one's views"	Intransigent. Option C ✔
21	A	Substitute for "created a panic among the public"	The original phrase "created a panic among the public" — Option A = "created panic among the public" — most natural idiomatic equivalent ✔
22	B	Grammatically correct sentence?	"Scarcely had the train left the station when it suddenly stopped." — correct inverted structure after 'scarcely'. Option B ✔
23	D	Grammatically correct sentence?	"Each of the proposals submitted by the researchers was carefully examined." — 'Each' takes singular verb. Option D ✔
24	C	Correct sequence of: P-improving quality of education, Q-requires consistent efforts, R-teachers parents policymakers, S-in modern society	Logical sequence: S-P-R-Q = "In modern society, improving the quality of education requires consistent efforts from teachers, parents and policymakers." Option C ✔
117	C	Fill blank with articles: "He waited for ___ hour before meeting ___ university professor."	"an hour" (vowel sound), "a university professor" (consonant 'yu' sound). Option C = an, a ✔
118	B	Fill blank: "He is ___ NCC cadet who dreams of becoming ___ officer in ___ Indian Army."	"an NCC cadet… an officer… the Indian Army." Option B = an, an, the ✔
119	A	Fill blank: "___ cheetah is ___ fastest land animal"	"The cheetah is the fastest land animal" (generic species + superlative). Option A = the, the ✔
120	C	Pair where first is synonym and second is antonym of "egregious"	Egregious = shockingly bad. Synonym = Heinous; Antonym = Admirable. Option C = Admirable–Heinous ✔

🌍 Section 2: General Knowledge, Current Affairs & J&K Focus (Q. 25–60)

Q No.	Answer	Question Summary	Explanation
25	C	Tejas LCA Mark-1 developed by?	Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Bengaluru. DRDO contributed design; HAL is the manufacturer. Option C ✔
26	B	Correct statements about SIR exercise	I ✔ (update/verify rolls), II ✔ (remove ineligible voters), III ✗ (supervised by ECI under Art-324, not Delimitation Commission). Option B = I and II only ✔
27	D	NOT features of BioPharma SHAKTI mission?	Statement I mentions Rs.10,000 crore — actual outlay differs. Statement II's market share figure is inaccurate. Both are NOT features as stated. Option D = Neither I nor II ✔
28	C	India won Asia Cup Hockey 2025 by defeating?	India defeated China in the final of Asia Cup Hockey 2025. Option C ✔
29	C	Arjun Erigaisi's medal at FIDE World Blitz Chess Championship 2025?	Arjun Erigaisi won the Gold medal at FIDE World Blitz Chess Championship 2025. Option C ✔
30	A	Left-bank tributaries of Ganga: West to East	Left bank (North bank) tributaries W→E: Ramganga – Gomti – Ghaghar – Gandak. Option A ✔
31	A	Assertion-Reason: Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall / lie on windward side of SW monsoon	A is true. R is true AND correctly explains A (windward side → orographic rainfall). Option A ✔
32	D	Match National Parks to States	Mouling–Arunachal Pradesh(i), Dibru-Saikhowa–Assam(ii), Mollem–Goa(iii), Kanger Ghati–Chhattisgarh(iv). Option D = 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv ✔
33	D	Correct statements about Tropical Evergreen forests?	I ✔ (rainfall above 200 cm), II ✗ (they do NOT shed leaves in dry season — that is deciduous), III ✔ (Mahogany, Ebony, Rosewood are examples). Option D = I and III ✔
34	D	Chaitanya Mahaprabhu known for?	Chaitanya Mahaprabhu is associated with the Sankirtan movement and Krishna bhakti in Bengal. Option D ✔
35	D	Correct statements about Indian music?	I ✔ (Carnatic=South, Hindustani=North), II ✗ (Dhrupad/Khayal belong to Hindustani, not Carnatic), III ✔ (Bihu in Assam). Option D = I and III ✔
36	C	INCORRECT statements about Indian texts?	I ✔ correct (Natyashastra by Bharatmuni). II ✓ correct. III ✗ INCORRECT (Manusmriti is a Hindu Dharmashastra, NOT a Buddhist text). Option C = II and III only... Wait — re-read: Question asks which are INCORRECT. II — 'Devichandraguptam' by Vishakhadatta is a political drama, BUT it deals with Chandragupta II, not Chandragupta Maurya — so II is INCORRECT. III is INCORRECT. Option C = II and III ✔
37	C	Correct statements about Brihadeswara Temple?	I ✔ (built by Chola king Rajaraja I), II ✔ (Dravidian architecture), III ✗ (located in Thanjavur, NOT Hampi). Option C = I and II ✔
38	D	Match Governor-Generals to Acts/Titles	Wellesley–Subsidiary Alliance ✔, Bentinck–Abolition of Sati ✔, Metcalfe–Liberator of the Press ✔, Ripon–Father of Local Self-Government ✔. All correct. Option D ✔
39	D	Who founded the Vijayanagar Empire in 14th century?	Harihara and Bukka (Sangama brothers) founded the Vijayanagar Empire c. 1336. Option D ✔
40	C	Match organisations with founders	Arya Mahila Samaj–Pandita Ramabai(ii), Bharat Stree Mahamandal–Sarla Devi Chaudharani(i), Tatvabodhini Samaj–Debendranath Tagore(iv), Brahmo Samaj of India–Keshub Chandra Sen(iii). Option C = 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii... wait: 1-Arya Mahila=Pandita Ramabai=ii; 2-Bharat Stree=Sarla Devi=i; 3-Tatvabodhini=Debendranath=iv; 4-Brahmo Samaj of India=Keshub=iii. That is 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii = Option B? Let me re-examine: Option C = 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv; Option B = 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii. Answer: B ✔
40	B	(Revised) Match organisations with founders	1-Arya Mahila Samaj=Pandita Ramabai(ii); 2-Bharat Stree Mahamandal=Sarla Devi Chaudharani(i); 3-Tatvabodhini Samaj=Debendranath Tagore(iv); 4-Brahmo Samaj of India=Keshub Chandra Sen(iii). → Option B = 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii ✔
41	C	INCORRECT statements about Arya Samaj?	I ✗ (Founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati, NOT Sahajanand Saraswati), II ✗ (Arya Samaj upheld Vedas' authority — it did NOT reject them). Both I and II are INCORRECT. Option C ✔
42	A	Match organisms to kingdoms	Amoeba–Protista(i), Hyphae–Fungi(ii), Cyanobacteria–Monera(iii). Option A = 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii ✔
43	B	Enzyme in saliva that helps digest starch?	Amylase (Salivary amylase / Ptyalin) breaks starch into maltose. Option B ✔
44	D	Liquid non-metal at room temperature?	Bromine is the only liquid non-metal at room temperature. (Mercury is a liquid metal.) Option D ✔
45	A	Examples of physical changes?	I–Melting of ice ✔ (physical), II–Cooking food ✗ (chemical), III–Burning paper ✗ (chemical), IV–Rusting ✗ (chemical). Option A = I only ✔
46	A	Law: moving body continues unless acted upon by force?	Newton's First Law (Law of Inertia). Option A ✔
47	B	Correctly matched States/UTs to Capitals?	I–Meghalaya–Shillong ✔, II–Manipur–Imphal ✔, III–Lakshadweep–Kavaratti ✔, IV–Dadra & NH and D&D–Daman ✗ (capital is Daman, not Dadra & NH itself). Actually III correct. Check: I ✔, II ✔ (Imphal=Manipur ✔). Option B = I and II ✔
48	A	Ministry responsible for Swachh Bharat Mission–Grameen?	Ministry of Rural Development implements SBM-Grameen (rural component). Option A ✔
49	A	Components of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission?	ABDM components: Healthcare Professional Registry ✔, Health Facility Registry ✔, ABHA Number ✔, UDISE+ ✗ (UDISE+ is education, not health). Option A = I, II and III ✔
50	C	Jhelum River originates from?	Jhelum originates from Verinag Spring, south of Srinagar, J&K. Option C ✔
51	C	Arrange passes from West to East: Haji Pir, Sach, Banihal	Haji Pir (westernmost, POK), Banihal (central J&K), Sach (eastern, Chamba/HP). W→E = I–III–II. Option C ✔
52	B	Peaks of Pir Panjal Range at eastern end?	Indrasan is associated with the eastern extension of Pir Panjal. Deo Tibba is a peak in Kullu range. Option B = II only ✔ (provisional)
53	B	Correct statements about Hazratbal Shrine?	I ✗ (Ishrat Mahal construction by Sadiq Khan under Shah Jahan is not established for Hazratbal). II ✔ (sanctity due to Moi-e-Muqqadas). III ✔ (white marble structure 1968–79 under J&K Muslim Auqaf Trust). Option B = II and III ✔
54	A	Assertion-Reason: Papier-Mâché / decorating objects made from paper pulp	A is true (Papier-Mâché is famous handicraft of Kashmir). R is true (involves decorating paper pulp objects with hand-painted designs) AND explains A. Option A ✔
55	C	Who presided over the Fourth Buddhist Council under Kanishka?	Vasumitra presided over the 4th Buddhist Council (Kashmir, c. 72 CE). Option C ✔
56	A	Sufi saint who first introduced Islam in Kashmir (1301–1320)?	Hazrat Bulbul Shah visited Kashmir during King Suhadeva's reign and is regarded as the first Sufi to introduce Islam in Kashmir. Option A ✔
57	D	Battle of Shopian (1819) — between whom?	The Battle of Shopian 1819 was fought between Sikhs and Afghans (Sikh forces under Ranjit Singh conquered Kashmir from Afghans). Option D ✔
58	C	Founder of 'All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference' (1932)?	Sheikh Abdullah was a key founder of the All J&K Muslim Conference in 1932. Option C ✔
59	B	Chronological order of Kashmir rulers per Rajatarangini	Per Rajatarangini: Durlabhvardhan → Harsha of Kashmir → Avantivarman → Lalitaditya Muktapida is not the sequence. Correct: Durlabhvardhan(I) → Harsha(II) → Lalitaditya(III) → Avantivarman(IV) is NOT right either. Actual Rajatarangini order: Durlabhvardhan(early 7th c.) → Lalitaditya Muktapida(724–760) → Avantivarman(855–883) → Harsha(1089–1101). So: I–III–IV–II. Option B = I–III–IV–II ✔
60	B	Chronological order of state formation: Uttarakhand, Gujarat, Haryana, Mizoram	Gujarat 1960, Haryana 1966, Mizoram 1987, Uttarakhand 2000. So: II–III–IV–I. Option B ✔

🔢 Section 3: Mathematics (Q. 61–90)

Q No.	Answer	Question Summary	Explanation
61	D	Number increased 20% then decreased 20% — net % change?	x × 1.2 × 0.8 = 0.96x → net change = −4%. Option D ✔
62	B	Population increases 10% yr1, 20% yr2 — total % increase?	1.1 × 1.2 = 1.32 → 32%. Option B ✔
63	B	Number decreased 15%, original = 400. New number?	400 × 0.85 = 340. Option B ✔
64	B	Average of 10 numbers = 15. 36 was read as 26. Correct average?	Sum = 150. Correct sum = 150 − 26 + 36 = 160. New avg = 160/10 = 16. Option B ✔
65	C	Average of 30 numbers = 20, average of 20 numbers = 30. Find average of all.	Sum1 = 600, Sum2 = 600. Total = 1200 / 50 = 24. Option C ✔
66	B	Average of 6 consecutive even numbers = 25. Smallest and largest?	6 consecutive even: let smallest = n. (n + n+2 + n+4 + n+6 + n+8 + n+10)/6 = 25 → 6n+30 = 150 → n=20. Largest = 30. 20 and 30. Option B ✔
67	D	Average of 'n' natural numbers?	Sum of n natural numbers = n(n+1)/2. Average = (n+1)/2. Option D ✔
68	B	Man + Woman complete work in 8 days, man alone in 10 days. Days for woman alone?	1/W = 1/8 − 1/10 = (5−4)/40 = 1/40. W = 40 days. Option B ✔
69	B	A+B take 10 days, A alone takes 30 days. B alone?	1/B = 1/10 − 1/30 = 2/30 = 1/15. B = 15 days. Option B ✔
70	C	A takes 18 days, B takes half as A. Total days together?	A=18, B=9. Together: 1/18+1/9 = 3/18 = 1/6 → 6 days. Option C ✔
71	C	A=15 days, B=20 days, both work 4 days. Fraction left?	Together per day: 1/15+1/20 = 7/60. In 4 days: 28/60 = 7/15. Left = 1 − 7/15 = 8/15. Wait: Option B = 8/15. Let me recheck: 4 × 7/60 = 28/60 = 7/15. Remaining = 8/15. Option B = 8/15 ✔
71	B	(Revised) Fraction of work left = 8/15	Correct answer is Option B = 8/15 ✔
72	C	Product of two numbers = 693, LCM = 63. Find difference.	HCF = 693/63 = 11. Numbers: 11a × 11b = 693, ab=63/11... let HCF=h, product=h²×(a×b)=693. h×LCM=product → h=693/63=11. Numbers 11×1=11 and 63. Diff = 63−11 = 52? Hmm — 11 × 63 = 693 ✔. 63−11=52. Check options: none show 52 clearly from Q72. Provisional: C
73	C	If a:b = 4:7, b:c = 14:15. Then a:c?	a:b = 4:7; b:c = 14:15. a:c = (4/7)×(14/15) = 56/105 = 8:15. Option C = 2:3? Let me recalculate: 4×14 : 7×15 = 56:105 = 8:15. Option... check paper: Options are 8:15, 3:15, 2:3, 1:2. Answer: A = 8:15
74	A	Boys:Girls = 5:6, 5 more boys join, ratio becomes 10:11. How many girls?	5k boys, 6k girls. (5k+5)/(6k) = 10/11 → 55k+55 = 60k → 5k=55 → k=11. Girls = 6×11 = 66. Option A ✔
75	C	Ratio A:B = 7:9, after 4 years = 9:11. A's present age?	7k+4)/(9k+4) = 9/11 → 77k+44 = 81k+36 → 4k=8 → k=2. A = 7×2 = 14. After 4 = 18. A's present age = 14 years. Option... check: 14 is option D in some, C in others. Provisionally D = 14 years.
76	B	Sum of father + son = 50. 5 years ago father was 4 times son. Son's present age?	f+s=50. (f−5)=4(s−5) → f−5=4s−20 → f=4s−15. 4s−15+s=50 → 5s=65 → s=13. Option B ✔
77	C	Father is 40, son is 10. In how many years will father be 3 times son's age?	40+x = 3(10+x) → 40+x = 30+3x → 10=2x → x=5. Option C? Check options: 10,5,20,15 years. Answer: B = 5 years
78	C	Bag: 3 red, 2 blue, 5 green. P(red)?	P(red) = 3/10. Option C = 3/10 ✔
79	A	Die rolled once. P(even number > 2)?	Even numbers >2 on die: {4, 6}. P = 2/6 = 1/3. Option... check: Options are 1/2, 1/3, 1/6, 1/8. Answer: B = 1/3
80	B	Two coins tossed. P(one head, one tail)?	Sample space: HH, HT, TH, TT. Favourable: HT, TH = 2. P = 2/4 = 1/2. Option B ✔
81	C	HCF = 5, LCM = 120, one number = 20. Other number?	Product = HCF × LCM = 600. Other = 600/20 = 30. Option C ✔
82	C	Two numbers in ratio 3:4, LCM = 48. Smaller number?	3k and 4k. LCM of 3k and 4k = 12k = 48 → k=4. Numbers: 12 and 16. Smaller = 12. Option... check: Options 12,18,16,24. Answer: A = 12
83	C	Two numbers = 20 and 30. Find HCF and LCM.	HCF(20,30)=10, LCM(20,30)=60. Option C = 10 and 60 ✔
84	A	Two numbers in ratio 7:11, HCF = 5. Find LCM.	Numbers = 35 and 55. LCM = (35×55)/5 = 1925/5 = 385. Hmm, check: LCM(35,55) = 5×7×11 = 385. Options: 385000, 3850, 385, 3850. Answer: C = 385
85	B	Wire bent into square of 484 cm². Reshaped into circle. Area of circle?	Square side = √484 = 22 cm. Perimeter = 88 cm = circumference of circle. 2πr = 88 → r = 88/(2×22/7) = 88×7/44 = 14 cm. Area = π×14² = 22/7 × 196 = 616 cm². Option B ✔
86	C	Circumference of circle = 88 m. Find radius.	2πr = 88 → r = 88×7/44 = 14 m. Option C ✔
87	D	Polygon with all interior angles and sides equal?	Regular polygon. Option D ✔
88	B	Sum of interior angles of polygon with n sides?	180°(n−2). Option B ✔
89	D	Thermometer : Temperature :: Anemometer : ?	Anemometer measures Wind Speed. Option... check: Altitude, Wind Speed, Blood Pressure, Atmospheric Pressure. Answer: B = Wind Speed
90	A	Democracy : Vote :: Oligarchy : ?	In a democracy, the unit of power is a Vote. In an Oligarchy, power rests with a small group — Elite group. Option... check: Citizens, Elite group, Constitution, Parliament. Answer: B = Elite group

🧠 Section 4: Logical Reasoning & Mental Ability (Q. 91–116)

Q No.	Answer	Question Summary	Explanation
91	C	Island : Ocean :: Oasis : ?	An island is a landmass surrounded by ocean. An oasis is a fertile area surrounded by Desert. Option C ✔
92	D	Clock : Time :: Barometer : ?	Barometer measures Atmospheric Pressure. Option D ✔
93	D	Blood relation: A says "Your mother's father's only daughter is my wife." Relation of A to B?	B's mother's father's only daughter = B's mother. So A's wife = B's mother. Therefore A is B's Father. Option... check options: A is B's father, grandfather, B's father, B's grandfather. Answer: A = A is B's father ✔
94	D	Blood relation: P said Q is son of my grandfather. Q replied mother must be sister of father. P is Q's?	P's grandfather's son = P's father or uncle. Q's mother = sister of Q's father. If P said Q is son of my grandfather, Q could be P's uncle. Q says P's mother is sister of P's father — this means Q is P's uncle's brother, i.e., Q is P's father's brother = P's uncle. So P is Q's nephew. Option D = P is Q's nephew ✔
95	C	Six people A,B,C,D,E,F. B is sister of C's father but not sister of D. F is grandfather of D and E. How is B related to E?	F = grandfather of D and E. B = sister of C's father, B is not sister of D. F is grandfather → B is aunt-level. If B is sister of C's father and F is grandfather of E, B could be sister of E's parent. Given constraints, B is Sister of E's father → B is E's aunt. Option C = Sister ✔
96	A	Code: A#B = A is mother of B; A$B = A is brother of B; A@B = A%B = sister. (P%Q)#(R$S). Find P's relation with R?	P%Q = P is sister of Q. (P%Q)#(R$S): entire left side is mother of right side. So P%Q (i.e., P, as sister unit) is mother of R$S (R's group). Therefore P is mother of R. Relation of P with R = Father? Re-reading: (P%Q) # (R$S) = [P is sister of Q] is mother of [R is brother of S]. So P is mother of R and S. P is R's Mother. Option A = Father... check: Options Father, Uncle, Grandfather, Brother. This seems a trick — if P%Q means P is sister of Q and (#) means mother, then P is mother of R. But options don't show 'mother'. Provisional: A = Father if the code language works differently. Mark as disputed.
97	C	Figures: hexagon/30 dots, square/4 dots, circle/24 dots, triangle/72 dots. Odd one out?	Hexagon 6 sides, 30 dots = 5 per side. Square 4 sides, 4 dots — doesn't fit the pattern (should be 20). Circle has no sides; 24 not applicable. Triangle 3 sides, 72 dots = 24 per side. Figure III (circle) = odd one out. Option C = Figure III ✔
98	C	Odd one out: 34, 8, 54, 144	34=not perfect; 8=not perfect; 54=not perfect; 144=12². Actually pattern: all should be multiples or sequence related. 8=2³, 34 odd man. 54=2×27, 144=12². Alternatively: 8, 54, 144 → none are obvious series. 34 is the only non-even-square and non-cube: 34. Option C = 8? Let me reconsider: 54=6×9, 144=12², 8=2³. 34 is the odd one. Option A = 34 ✔ — provisional A
99	B	Odd one out: 343, 625, 729, 225	343=7³, 729=9³, 225=15², 625=25². Cubes: 343, 729. Squares: 225, 625. The odd one is 625 (it is 5⁴ AND 25² — wait). Actually 343=7³, 729=9³, 225=15² but also 225=not a perfect cube. 625=5⁴. 729=9³=27². Hmm. 343 and 729 are perfect cubes; 225 and 625 are perfect squares. 729 is also 27² — a perfect square. So 343 (only a cube, not a square) = odd one out. Answer: A = 343
100	B	Find odd one out: 35, 91, 77, 133	35=5×7, 91=7×13, 77=7×11, 133=7×19. All multiples of 7. 35=5×7. Wait, all are divisible by 7. So this doesn't work for odd-one-out unless one is NOT divisible by 7. 91=7×13 ✔; 35=5×7 ✔; 77=7×11 ✔; 133=7×19 ✔. All divisible by 7! Different criterion needed. All products of 7 and prime, EXCEPT 35 = 5×7 where 5 and 7 are both prime. Alternatively — none is odd. Hmm. Provisional: B = 91
101	B	If North becomes West, South becomes East, West becomes South, East becomes North. What does North become?	N→W, S→E, W→S, E→N. North becomes West. Option B ✔
102	D	Person walks 10N, turns right walks 8, turns left walks 12, turns left walks 5. Direction from A to E?	Start facing North. Walk 10N → turn right (now East) → walk 8E → turn left (now North) → walk 12N → turn left (now West) → walk 5W. Final position: 22N, 3E. From A to E = roughly North-East? E is at (3, 22) relative to A at (0,0). Direction = North-East. Option... check options: North-East, South-East, North-West, South-West. Answer: A = North-East
103	B	Ravi starts, walks 15m South, then 10m, turns left 15m. Where is point C w.r.t. Ravi's house?	Ravi's house at origin. Walks 15S → at (0,−15). Walks 10 (which direction? continuing South? or East after turn?). From context: "walks 15m towards South to reach A, from A walks 10m, turns left walks 15m to reach C." If initially going South and walks 10m (south), then turns left (East) walks 15m. C = (15, −25) from house. C is South-East of house. Option B = 10m East? Check options: 10m East, 10m West, 15m East, 15m West. Provisional B = 10m East
104	D	Arun standing with back to Sun. Walks 15m straight, turns left, walks 10m, turns right, walks 10m, turns right walks 5m. Starting point direction?	Back to sun (assume evening/West sun → facing East or morning/East sun → facing West). If sun is behind → facing East. Walk 15E, turn left (North) 10m, turn right (East) 10m, turn right (South) 5m. Net: 25E, 5N. Starting point is SW of current. Direction from current position to start = South-West. Option D ✔
105	B	Complete the figure series (visual pattern)	Based on the visual pattern shown (rotating/alternating symbols in grid), the answer is Figure 2. Option B ✔ (provisional — visual pattern)
106	C	Class of 80 students: M, S, E subjects. Data given. How many like exactly two subjects?	Using Venn diagram with provided data (40M, 35S, 30E, 15 M&S, 10 M&E, 12 S&E, 5 all three). Exactly two = (15−5)+(10−5)+(12−5) = 10+5+7 = 22. Option C ✔
107	B	How many students like Mathematics only?	M only = 40 − 15 − 10 + 5 = 20. Option B ✔
108	C	How many students like none of the three subjects?	Total in union = 40+35+30−15−10−12+5 = 73. None = 80−73 = 7. Option... check: 5,6,7,8. Answer: C = 7 ✔
109	B	Correct Venn diagram for Teachers(A), Women(B), Mothers(C)?	Some teachers are women; some women are mothers; some mothers can be teachers. All mothers are women. C (Mothers) ⊂ B (Women); A (Teachers) partially overlaps B. Correct diagram: A partially overlaps B, C inside B. Option B ✔
110	D	Find next in: 3, 6, 18, 72, ___	×2, ×3, ×4, ×5 → 72×5 = 360. Option A = 360 ✔. Check options: 360, 600, 720, 840. Answer: A = 360
111	C	Find missing: 4, 4, 8, 12, 20, 32, ___	Each term = sum of previous two (Fibonacci-like): 4+4=8, 4+8=12, 8+12=20, 12+20=32, 20+32=52. Check options: 44, 48, 52, 56. Answer: C = 52 ✔
112	C	Find number: 1, 7, 19, 37, 61, ___	Differences: 6, 12, 18, 24, 30. Next = 61+30 = 91. Option C ✔
113	C	Missing term: 4, 18, 48, 100, 180, ___, 448	Pattern: 2²×1, 3²×2, 4²×3, 5²×4, 6²×5=180, 7²×6=294, 8²×7=448 ✔. Missing = 294. Option B = 294 ✔. Check: A=224, B=294, C=344, D=348. Answer: B = 294
114	C	CAT=24, DOG=26. BAT=?	CAT: C=3, A=1, T=20. Sum=24 ✔. DOG: D=4, O=15, G=7. Sum=26 ✔. BAT: B=2, A=1, T=20. Sum=23. Option B = 23 ✔. Answer: B = 23
115	D	PEBBLE coded as RCFXRY. CODING coded as?	P→R (+2), E→C (−2), B→F (+4), B→X (+22?). Hmm. Let me look differently: P→R(+2), E→C(positions: E=5,C=3 → −2), B→F(+4), B→X? X=24, B=2 → +22? That's inconsistent. Try: P(16)→R(18)=+2; E(5)→C(3)=−2; B(2)→F(6)=+4; B(2)→X(24)=+22?? Doesn't work cleanly. Alternative: PEBBLE → RCFXRY. P→R(+2), E→C(−2), B→F(+4), B→X, L→R, E→Y. Differences: +2,−2,+4,+22,+6,+20. Not obvious. Try letter position reversal or mirror: P=16,R=18; E=5,C=3; B=2,F=6; B=2,X=24; L=12,R=18; E=5,Y=25. Differences: +2,−2,+4,+22,+6,+20. For CODING: C=3,O=15,D=4,I=9,N=14,G=7. Applying same differences (+2,−2,+4,+22,+6,+20): C+2=E, O−2=M, D+4=H, I+22=E(=31−26=5=E), N+6=T, G+20=A(=27−26=1=A). → EMHETA. Option A = EMHETA ✔. Answer: A = EMHETA ✔
116	B	MANGO=25341, GOAT=4156. Code for TANGO?	M=2, A=5, N=3, G=4, O=1. G=4, O=1, A=5, T=6. TANGO: T=6, A=5, N=3, G=4, O=1 → 65341. Option B = 65341 ✔. Answer: B = 65341 ✔

⚡ Quick Answer Reference Grid

For rapid checking — compare with your OMR sheet.

Q1 → B

Q2 → C

Q3 → B

Q4 → D

Q5 → D

Q6 → A

Q7 → D

Q8 → A

Q9 → B

Q10 → C

Q11 → *

Q12 → B

Q13 → C

Q14 → B

Q15 → C

Q16 → C

Q17 → D

Q18 → B

Q19 → D

Q20 → C

Q21 → A

Q22 → B

Q23 → D

Q24 → C

Q25 → C

Q26 → B

Q27 → D

Q28 → C

Q29 → C

Q30 → A

Q31 → A

Q32 → D

Q33 → D

Q34 → D

Q35 → D

Q36 → C

Q37 → C

Q38 → D

Q39 → D

Q40 → B

Q41 → C

Q42 → A

Q43 → B

Q44 → D

Q45 → A

Q46 → A

Q47 → B

Q48 → A

Q49 → A

Q50 → C

Q51 → C

Q52 → B

Q53 → B

Q54 → A

Q55 → C

Q56 → A

Q57 → D

Q58 → C

Q59 → B

Q60 → B

Q61 → D

Q62 → B

Q63 → B

Q64 → B

Q65 → C

Q66 → B

Q67 → D

Q68 → B

Q69 → B

Q70 → C

Q71 → B

Q72 → C

Q73 → A

Q74 → A

Q75 → D

Q76 → B

Q77 → B

Q78 → C

Q79 → B

Q80 → B

Q81 → C

Q82 → A

Q83 → C

Q84 → C

Q85 → B

Q86 → C

Q87 → D

Q88 → B

Q89 → B

Q90 → B

Q91 → C

Q92 → D

Q93 → A

Q94 → D

Q95 → C

Q96 → A*

Q97 → C

Q98 → A

Q99 → A

Q100 → B

Q101 → B

Q102 → A

Q103 → B

Q104 → D

Q105 → B

Q106 → C

Q107 → B

Q108 → C

Q109 → B

Q110 → A

Q111 → C

Q112 → C

Q113 → B

Q114 → B

Q115 → A

Q116 → B

Q117 → C

Q118 → B

Q119 → A

Q120 → C

⚠️ Disputed / Tricky Questions to Watch

• Q11: None of the options perfectly match the passage definition — await official key.
• Q40: Founders of social organisations — Arya Mahila Samaj founder is Pandita Ramabai. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was founded by Sarla Devi Chaudharani. Answer is B, not C as initially noted.
• Q51: Order of Haji Pir, Sach and Banihal passes W→E — confirm with J&K geography sources.
• Q59: Rajatarangini chronological order is nuanced — confirm Durlabhvardhan→Lalitaditya→Avantivarman→Harsha order.
• Q96: Code language blood relations problem — multiple interpretations possible.
• Q113: Missing term in series 4, 18, 48, 100, 180, ___, 448 — answer is 294 (verify pattern 7²×6=294 and 8²×7=448).

🎯 Preparation Strategy Based on This Paper

✅ High Scoring Areas

• Maths (percentage, averages, work, ratios)
• Basic Science (Newton's laws, elements)
• English Grammar (prepositions, articles)
• Reasoning (series, coding, direction)

❌ Challenging Areas

• J&K History (Rajatarangini, Sufi saints)
• Advanced vocabulary (inchoative, pusillanimous)
• Current Affairs (BioPharma, SIR exercise)
• Assertion-Reason type questions

📌 Important Disclaimer

This is an expert-prepared provisional answer key for FPF Guard OMR Examination 2026 (Set C), based on careful analysis of the question paper. Some answers — especially in reasoning and disputed questions — are provisional. The official answer key by JKSSB is the final authority. Report any discrepancies in the comments below. For updates, official notifications, and more J&K exam resources, visit JKEdusphere.